On the basis of 10 mqs equal one pass. I want a full explanation of how you believe this to be true. Theoretically for each mq you attempt. For each single mq, it is 1/6.

How you get 10 mqs for one astounds me. Because theoretically you would need 6. And if you did more then 6 fails. I want an in deph explanation how you come of this, because I can think of no math that can yields these results.

Tell me how many times you failed in a row and I'll tell you what the chance of it happening was. Better yet I'll give you the equation to figure it out yourself.

((5^n)/(6^n))*100 where n is the number of consecutive fails. That will give you a percentage chance that you will fail the specified number of times consecutively.

here is your answer =)



or just look at chart

This post was edited by A_U_T_I_S_M on Jun 2 2008 12:55pm

This should be sticky material gg stuff

He wanted a number that went beyond the scope of your chart AUTISM

The Magic Number is 40. The percentage of that occuring is so low it makes me smile.

9,094,947,017,729,282,379,150,390,625 / 13,367,494,538,843,734,067,838,845,976,576 divide that out and multiply by 100 and you have your percentage.

ill continue to work on this and add a bunch of rando faq's for vs 2 =)

And to only think that jaykwik may of fell to these odds. I am a firm believer Jaykwik failed on purpose. Theoretically this shit just don't happen. And I don't think it rarely did.