definitely the other way round
but i dont think the explanation above is logical
a or b leading to c are not equivalent to a lead c AND b lead C
that can be the case but do not have to.
a->c and b->c leands to a or b leading to c
not the other way round
and the or is not exclusive there.
you can say if (a leads to c and b also leads to c), that means that either ( a or b ) lead to c
but you cant say
if (a or

lead to c that means (leads to) that [(a AND b) are leading to c] or that [ a leads to C and b leats to c]
maybe b doesnt.
so the conclusion above "Conclusion : [(A or B ) → C] → [(A→C) and (B→C)]"
doesnt sound logical to me
but i have never had anything to do with formal logic - so maybe im wrong.