Hey guys!
Im doing some work in regressionanalysis, building my own model, and I've been asked to account for the heteroscedasticity or if there isnt any, in all my plots.

Now I think I understand it, to the point that it's basicly if there is not a "normal"(evenly) spread of my residuals this is heteroscedasticity.
But if I instead of looking at partial p-plot to see my residuals, go and do a simple bivariate scatterplot and look at my independent and it's slightly cone shaped in higher values, would this still be called heteroscedasticity?




For example in this image, would it because of the cone-shaping in the higher values be judged as having heteroscedasticity? and if it did, you wouldnt say it's a big amount of it tho, right?

Thanks alot in advance!