I was puzzled at first.
Now I guess this was written by a statistician, rather than by a mathematician

There are some confusing parts in the problem :
"We have a coin ... an unbiased estimate of p". This is the most confusing part in my opinion.
We are not conducting some tests to find a constant p (a hidden value of a constant).
Actually p is a variable all along the problem, and we are asked to find a general scheme that can apply to every p (or at least "for some p").
"Is there some other function f(r) such that..." :
The question can be understood as : "How many choices do we have to find (n+1) constants a_0, a_1, a_2, ... , a_n such that :
SIGMA ( a_r * p^r * (1-p)^(n-r) ) = p
FOR EVERY 0<p<1 (or at least "for some p") ?
The minimal hypothesis here is : for at least (n+1) different values of p (a missing information).
Otherwise (if p were seen as a constant), you could simply plug in f(r) = p (for every r=0...n) :
E(t) = p and V(t) = 0 < p(1-p)/n
But this is not what is expected here, for sure !
Now to the solution :
A) The (n+1) polynomials g_r (r=0...n) are linearly independant.

Since they are (n+1) independant vectors in a (n+1) dimensional vector space (the set of degree < n+1 polynomials), they form a base of that vector space.
C) Since they form a base, every vector has a unique expression (decomposition) of the form : a_0*g_0 + a_1*g_1 + ... + a_n*g_n, where a_0, a_1... a_n are constants (real or complex numbers, depending on the field you're working on).
D) We already know a decomposition for the specific vector X (identity polynomial) :
X = SIGMA (r=0 to r=n ; (r/n) * Combinatory(r,n) * g_r(X) )
E) We are asked for different coefficients in the decomposition of the same vector X : X = SIGMA (r=0 to r=n ; f_r * Combinatory(r,n) * g_r(X) )
So it is safe to conclude that f_r = r/n for every r = 0 ... n.
Notice that the equality in the vector space of degree < n+1 polynomials comes from the matching of at least n+1 different values ("for some p" = for at least (n+1) different p's).
The part concerning V(t) is simply useless... Amazing ?
The linearity of (g_r), r=0...n can be proven by writing a linear combinaison equals to zero :
0 = a_0 * g_0 + a_1 * g_1 + ... + a_n * g_n
That is, for every x :
0 = a_0 * g_0(x) + ... + a_n * g_n (x)
Now plug in x=0 :
0 = a_0 * 1 + 0 + 0 + ... + 0
a_0 = 0
Plug in a_0 = 0 :
0 = a_1 * g_1 + ... + a_n * g_n
ie : 0 = a_1 * X * ( 1-X )^(n-1) + ... + a_n * X^n
You are now able to factorize by X :
0 = X * [ a_1 * (1-X)^(n-1) + a_2 * X * (1-X)^(n-2) + ... + a_n * X^(n-1) ]
The product of those 2 polynomials is zero : at least 1 must be zero (and it's not the first) :
0 = a_1 * (1-X)^(n-1) + a_2 * X * (1-X)^(n-2) + ... + a_n * X^(n-1)
And repeat : plug in x = 0, see that a_1 = 0, etc
You have proven that every a_0, a_1 ... a_n are all zero.
This post was edited by feanur on Oct 2 2013 06:08am