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Sep 24 2013 11:20am
Hey, paying 100fg for a good answer to this problem, or if someone just wants to suggest where to start that would be appreciated as well.

Basically: We have a large population of N people, where it is so large N can be said to be infinite. This population consists of two equally sized groups. An opinion survey is to be conducted, where the answers can be "yes" or "no". We are trying to determine the proportion of "yes" in the population. A sample of size n is drawn, and the proportion of "yes" amongst them is given as an estimate. If in the entire population the proportion is p = (p1 + p2) / 2, where p1, p2 are the proportions of the two groups, exactly how much of a reduction in variance is obtained if a sample size of n/2 from each group (rather than selecting n from the entire population)?
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Sep 24 2013 12:17pm
Nvm, think I understand the question

This post was edited by zackill4 on Sep 24 2013 12:18pm
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Sep 24 2013 12:35pm
Unfortunately I have nothing to add at the moment, but I was confused by this:
Quote (WaefI @ Sep 24 2013 10:20am)
A sample of size n is drawn, and the proportion of "yes" amongst them is given as an estimate.

Why would we need to estimate the number of "yes" responses in the sample group? Shouldn't we know that for certain? Isn't that the purpose of creating a sample?
Are am I just being dense today?

This post was edited by Azrad on Sep 24 2013 12:36pm
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Sep 24 2013 12:36pm
Quote (Azrad @ Sep 24 2013 01:35pm)
Unfortunately I have nothing to add at the moment, but I was confused by this:

Why would we need to estimate the number of "yes" responses in the sample group?
Are am I just being dense today?


estimate for the population I assume.

I'm getting an odd solution for this btw, so I'm rechecking my algebra lol
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Sep 24 2013 12:41pm
Code
Correct me if I'm wrong, but I think this is how you'd go about solving...

So variance of the original sample is

n*p*(1-p), since this is binomailly distributed


the variance of a sample from both groups is
var(group A + group b) = var(group A) + var(group b) because A and B are independent groups

var(group A) + var(group b) = n/2*p1*(1-p1) + n/2*p2*(1-p2) = n/2 *(p1 - p1^2 + p2 - p2^2)


Now there are two ways of finishing this.
Either sub in (p1+p2)/2 for p in the original sample variance and compare, or try to write the second variance in terms of n and p.


Edit: goddamn sunglasses emote, supposed to say group B

This post was edited by zackill4 on Sep 24 2013 12:46pm
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Sep 24 2013 12:45pm
Quote (zackill4 @ Sep 24 2013 11:41am)
Edit: goddamn sunglasses emote, supposed to say group B

heh put it in code tags :lol:

This post was edited by Azrad on Sep 24 2013 12:45pm
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Sep 24 2013 12:46pm
Quote (Azrad @ Sep 24 2013 01:45pm)
heh put it in code tags  :lol:


Thanks lol
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Sep 24 2013 12:49pm
Let X count the number of yes in the size n sample.
X follows a binomial law with parameters n and p :

V(X) = np(1-p)

Let X1 count the number of yes in the first size n/2 sample, let X2 count the number of yes in the second size n/2 sample.
X1 and X2 both follow a binomial law with parameters n/2 and respectively p1 and p2 :

V(X1) = (n/2).p1(1-p1)
V(X2) = (n/2).p2(1-p2)

Now let Y = X1 + X2.

You're intersted in knowing the reduction V(Y) / V(X).

V(Y) = V(X1) + V(X2) + 2.cov (X1,X2)
but since X1 and X2 are independant :
V(Y) = V(X1) + V(X2)

Hence :

V(Y) = (n/2).[p1(1-p1)+p2(1-p2)]

And finally :

V(Y) / V(X) = [p1(1-p1) + p2(1-p2)] / [2p(1-p)]
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Sep 24 2013 12:51pm
Quote (feanur @ Sep 24 2013 01:49pm)
Let X count the number of yes in the size n sample.
X follows a binomial law with parameters n and p :

V(X) = np(1-p)

Let X1 count the number of yes in the first size n/2 sample, let X2 count the number of yes in the second size n/2 sample.
X1 and X2 both follow a binomial law with parameters n/2 and respectively p1 and p2 :

V(X1) = (n/2).p1(1-p1)
V(X2) = (n/2).p2(1-p2)

Now let Y = X1 + X2.

You're intersted in knowing the reduction V(Y) / V(X).

V(Y) = V(X1) + V(X2) + 2.cov (X1,X2)
but since X1 and X2 are independant :
V(Y) = V(X1) + V(X2)

Hence :

V(Y) = (n/2).[p1(1-p1)+p2(1-p2)]

And finally :

V(Y) / V(X) = [p1(1-p1) + p2(1-p2)] / [2p(1-p)]


Looks like we're in agreement then. It ain't gonna be a pretty solution though :(. You can get a 2p term in the numerator but you can't get rid of the p1 and p2 pretty sure.
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Sep 24 2013 10:02pm
Haven't forgotten about this problem, just don't have enough time to go through the work and check everything right now (which is why I haven't given fg yet). Thanks for the help though, guys. If it all works out, I'll give you both (zackill4 and feanur) 100fg though. That will most likely be midday tomorrow (the 25th).
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