Depends;

Are you a 12 year old in middle school math class? Yes.
Are you asking if it technically does? No, as .99 (bar) is (theoretically) an infinite digit whereas .000(continued to near-infinity)1 is a finite number that cannot even be equated if it ever actually caught up to .99(bar)

Failish smartass.

Mmm, how about someone tries to prove that numbers exist

edit : +42

This post was edited by Taxidermy on May 14 2010 12:26pm

i want to curb stomp all the trolls...

seriously

the simple act of putting ... in the number does not make it infinite

but, the act of putting a 1 @ the end of it does...

the number terminates, meaning it is not infinite, show me an equation where you can get .000...01 as an answer...

1-0.999...

your move

edit : +43

This post was edited by Taxidermy on May 14 2010 02:13pm

He was right, you were wrong.
Philosophy and maths go together nicely so please do not argue that.
0.999... + 0.000... 1 = 1
However, 0.000... 1 = 0 because it has an infinite number of 0's before the 1 so whatever is after that never shows up
Therefore, 0.999... + 0.000... 1 is the same as saying 1+0 which is 1.



Fail.

Thank you.



This isn't philosophical thinking?
Anyways, this fact can also be proven mathematically, and I know how to do it.

0.0000...1 is nonzero
you can't define 0.0000...1 with an infinite number of zero's since the 1 is an endpoint and you would be trying to say "after infinity of these, put a 1" which just doesn't work
also I'm expecting all your fg
I proved .999=1 using Galois Theory

But what would happend if you subtract 0.999... from 1?
It is equal to zero.

there is never a 1 at the end
you can't define an end to reach, to add a 1 to it
it's 0's all the way down