0.000...1

has a finite number of zeros. actually you shouldnt use this notation at all

edit : +41

This post was edited by Taxidermy on May 14 2010 11:10am

I said that wrong before. My issue with the analogy is that you can't think of the Dirac Delta function visually, since any function with infinite height but only at a point technically has no height and so no area. That's one of the early theorems of Lebesgue theory. Once you redefine it as a measure-distribution you can't even graph the Dirac Delta on the real line anymore and it doesn't matter what it "looks" like since all the hard work is being done by redefining integration o.O

This post was edited by darkfire on May 14 2010 11:13am

Agreed.
If it is .999 repeating to infinity, then you can not simply add .000...1 to it, seeing as that is a finite number.
Hurr durr

According to that notation, yes.
But the idea is that there's an infinite amount of zeros before the one.

And it is equal to zero, I'm sure of it.



How is it finite when there's an infinite amount of zeros before it?

Please prove me wrong.

This post was edited by sevlo on May 14 2010 11:20am

Technically, there is no 1, since you cannot talk about what happens "after" an infinite amount of anything when doing series representations like this. The best you could do is define this number as the limit as n goes to infinity of 1/(10^n), which is of course zero. The exact quantity you refer to does not exist though.

Because if there were an infinite amount of zeroes before it, then there is no 1 at the end, because there is no end.
Learn how infinity works before talking about it.

This post was edited by BreakPoint on May 14 2010 11:23am

The thing is, you can prove it.
Since there's an infinite numbers before infinity, there is no infinity right?

Still, prove me mathematically wrong on this one.

This post was edited by sevlo on May 14 2010 11:25am

No you can not.
Gah, you just don't get it.
If there's no infinity for your "proof",
then it's .9+.1 because there isn't an infinite amount of repeating numbers after the first decimal point.

You said it yourself.



Having and infinite amount of zeros before 1, means that one will never reach it, but it's still there. The "never reach" part makes it zero (philosophically).
This can also be proved mathematically...

Don't bring philosophy into a math problem. No wonder you're so fucking wrong.

.9 =/= .999 repeating, and with an infinite amount of 0's after .0, there will never be a 1 at the end, because it never ends.