You are just trying to get the last word in. Where is your backup? your proof that my previous statement was wrong huh?

+2. I will use this thread for the best purpose possible.

How is this lasting 107 pages

The answer is yes and there is 10000000000000000 proof

wow you guys actually use 10ppp?

this thread's only on page 43 as far as i'm concerned. getting it to the real page 100 would be impressive.

Now you got to be impressed by how many pages this now clearly a troll thread has become.

Wagabooza!

Obviously just by looking at it, without any proof it can be seen that 1 != .999... , 1=1.

For practical uses, .999... is USED as one but it isn't one. It asymptotically approaches 1 but never reaches it.

Numbers don't 'reach' other numbers. Numbers don't 'asymptotically approach' anything. (Functions and sequences, however, can do those things)
See, if you, say, give me two numbers x and y, then I can tell you one of three things about x and y:
x < y, or x > y, or x = y. Saying 'x approaches y' is nonsense.
So,
0.999... is a number. Thus 0.999... is either equal to 1 or it isn't. It is easy to prove that it is equal. (Also, it's not a practicality issue, nor is it convention. The numbers are equal.)

Also, one of two things is true about you: you're either retarded or a troll (could be both, actually...).

I am still a little confused with this:
You said (1-0.999...)+(1-0.999...)+(1-0.999...)... is 0. As far as I'm concerned, it can equal any real number between 0 and infinity. possible answers for this.
It can either equal 0 or it can equal infinity. Nothing else.
For it to equal 0, 1-0.999... must equal exactly 0, but as far as I'm concerned, 1-0.999... is an infinitesimal with a limit of 0, meaning there is absolutely no way to describe it other than 0 but it is not actually 0. It is like 1 divided by infinity has a limit of 0, but is not actually 0 because if it was 0 then 0 multiplied by infinity would have to equal 1 which we know is not true. 0.000... 1 is an infinitesimal with a limit of 0 because you cannot have anything after an infinite series, but it is still not 0, despite the thing on the end of it not existing.
And the only reason why the digit after the infinite series does not affect the number is because if you replace one, ten, a hundred, a million or even a trillion digits with random numbers, they will still not affect the number because they are after the infinite series and infinity take away 1 trillion is still infinity, but if there is infinity sums of (1-0.999...), then the 0.000... 1 would end up 0.000... 1 multiplied by infinity, which as far as I'm concerned is then a rational number higher than a limit of 0. Without just assuming that 1-0.999... = 0, please try to explain this to me because there is always going to be a 1 on the end, even if the 1 is ignored because it does not affect the equation.

3>1