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Jun 20 2015 11:34am
feanur is right

Quote (JDota72 @ Jun 12 2015 02:29am)
because by the Chain Rule:

we have two functions f(x)=e^(x) and g(x)=x

hence f(g(x)) = e^(x)

f'(g(x)) is then by the Chain Rule f(g(x)) * g'(x) = e^(x) * 1 = e^(x)

you're saying (f(g))' = f(g)*g', i suggest you read a bit more on the chain rule
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Jun 20 2015 08:41pm
It's defined that way, hence why we have the constant "e".

It is THE sole function who, when differentiated, produces its own derivative. (Advanced calculus/analysis will actually take this as an axiom and prove it is true and unique).

I know there are smart asses out there, so I'll point out that f(x) = 0 does NOT count.

There's more ways to define e than there are.........(insert analogy here).

Calculus is your friend here if you really want to know...derivatives happen to "match up" when the base happens to be 2.17.... or "e"

This post was edited by Casey on Jun 20 2015 08:55pm
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Jun 20 2015 11:56pm
It's been 5 years since I learned this but I was taught it the following way.

dy/dx = y
dy/y = dx
Int (1/y) dy = Int (1) dx
Ln(y) = x
y = e^x

I was sloppy and dropped my constants of integration and absolute values but the result is the same. So the question is why is the integral of 1/x ln(x), or why is 1/x the derivative of the natural log function?

y = ln(x)
e^y = x
dy/dx e^y = 1
dy/dx x = 1
dy/dx = 1/x

There you go

This post was edited by nobrow on Jun 21 2015 12:03am
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Jun 21 2015 04:45am
Quote (Casey @ Jun 21 2015 03:41am)
It's defined that way, hence why we have the constant "e".

It is THE sole function who, when differentiated, produces its own derivative. (Advanced calculus/analysis will actually take this as an axiom and prove it is true and unique).

I know there are smart asses out there, so I'll point out that f(x) = 0 does NOT count.
(...)


And what about f(x) = 2.exp (x) ?

Actually exponential is the sole function y such that :
y ' = y
y(0) = 1
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Jun 21 2015 04:01pm
Quote (feanur @ Jun 21 2015 05:45am)
And what about f(x) = 2.exp (x) ?

Actually exponential is the sole function y such that :
y ' = y
y(0) = 1


Oh yea.....forgot about that initial condition. Details details....
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Jun 22 2015 09:13am
Quote (King-Punisher09 @ Jun 11 2015 07:24pm)
why f(x)=e^x is it's own derivative?


Just make your own proof using your limit definition and this becomes clear.

Let f(x)=e^x

Then lim h->0 of f(x+h)-f(x)/h
=lim h->0 of e^(x+h)-e^x/h
=lim h->0 e^h*e^x-e^x/h
=e^x lim h->0 e^h-1/h
=e^x

Thus f(x)=f'(x) when f(x)=e^x

This post was edited by Xx Shin3d0wn xX on Jun 22 2015 09:13am
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Jun 22 2015 03:34pm
Quote (Casey @ Jun 22 2015 12:01am)
Oh yea.....forgot about that initial condition. Details details....


:ph34r:
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Jun 30 2015 02:17am
Quote (Casey @ Jun 20 2015 08:41pm)
It's defined that way, hence why we have the constant "e".

It is THE sole function who, when differentiated, produces its own derivative. (Advanced calculus/analysis will actually take this as an axiom and prove it is true and unique).

I know there are smart asses out there, so I'll point out that f(x) = 0 does NOT count.

There's more ways to define e than there are.........(insert analogy here).

Calculus is your friend here if you really want to know...derivatives happen to "match up" when the base happens to be 2.17.... or "e"


Casey pls.

e = 2.718281828... (I like how it does the 18 28 twice, which is the only reason i give two shits about e's value).

But srsly.

Casey pls.
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Jun 30 2015 10:00am
Casey pls.
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Jun 30 2015 02:11pm
math is so fun :)
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