Quote (SoulOne @ Nov 3 2011 04:03pm)
2 part QuestionA)
okay i see this.
http://www.footballlocks.com/nflodds.shtmlExample:
DATE FAVORITE SPREAD UNDERDG TOTAL MONEY/ODDS1/6 1:00 ET Atlanta -7 At Indianapolis 44.5 -$340 +$280
1)Now how do you convert that to 1.2:1 or whatever it would be?(looking for the "Equation")?
B )
This i think i understand but lets make sure.
If odds are 1.2:1 (Still using example above)
ATL would give 100
IND would give 120
Correct?
Thank you guys for your help.
In your example, you use -$340 v. +$280.
It's simple math. If you want to find out how to make it ?:1 odds, you just divide both sides by 280 (or w/e the hypothetical # is) to get it = to 1.
So it'd be 1.21428571 etc. to 1 odds.
The only reason they post things like $340 v. $280 is because it's more accurate in terms of determining payouts than a strict 1.2:1 since the numbers are determined by how much people bet.
PM me if you have any questions as far as odds are concerned
This post was edited by ChiefBuzzin on Dec 24 2011 02:26am