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#11
Jun 29 2009 09:11pm
Sending to who had the more chips...only fair thing to do IMO

Feel free to post opinions now.
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#12
Jun 29 2009 09:11pm
it should say who ended in 2nd place
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#13
Jun 29 2009 09:11pm
Quote (guesswhoseback224 @ Mon, Jun 29 2009, 10:10pm)
i say they split 2nd place prize..basically getting their buy-in back


this.
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#14
Jun 29 2009 09:11pm
who had the better hand?
who had chipstack lead?

if one had 700, one had 200 and u have 3.1k.. then the 700 should win.
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#15
Jun 29 2009 09:11pm
The person with the 2nd highest amount of chips when you went all in gets 2nd.
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#16
Jun 29 2009 09:11pm
Whoever had the most chips out of the two would get 2nd. If they had the same amount of chips, whoever had the better hand.
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#17
Jun 29 2009 09:12pm
Quote (Shak @ Mon, Jun 29 2009, 08:11pm)
who had the better hand?
who had chipstack lead?

if one had 700, one had 200 and u have 3.1k.. then the 700 should win.


this
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#18
Jun 29 2009 09:12pm
Quote (Showny @ Mon, Jun 29 2009, 10:11pm)
The person with the 2nd highest amount of chips when you went all in gets 2nd.


this i stupid imo

poker isnt determined by who had more chips BEFORE a hand

they both tied for 2nd place...split the winnings btwn them
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#19
Jun 29 2009 09:13pm
Quote (guesswhoseback224 @ Mon, Jun 29 2009, 08:12pm)
this i stupid imo

poker isnt determined by who had more chips BEFORE a hand

they both tied for 2nd place...split the winnings btwn them


They didn't tie. Someone got 3rd, someone got 2nd. Unless somehow they both had the same amount of chips and the same hand.
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#20
Jun 29 2009 09:14pm
Quote (Eniac @ Mon, Jun 29 2009, 10:13pm)
They didn't tie. Someone got 3rd, someone got 2nd. Unless somehow they both had the same amount of chips and the same hand.


no, they both lost all their chips on the same hand to sum1 with more chips than both of them...they both were knocked out at the same exact time
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