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Dec 3 2010 06:33pm
First of all, I'm a complete beginner at guitar so if I'm missing something stupidly obvious, please forgive me.

Im currently learning 'If it means a lot to you' by A Day To Remember and I've come across a problem with the chords used in it.

The chords used are C/G, G, Gsus and Em/D.

Okay so the problem is, whenever I play C/G immediately after Em/D or vice versa, they seem to both make exactly the same sound, making them indistinguishable. Now, I've asked 3 other people's opinions on this and they all agree, there is absolubtly no difference between the two.

So I was wondering, does my guitar need adjusting or something? ie intonation or something?

If anyone who could help, I'd be very grateful :)
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Dec 3 2010 06:48pm
http://tabs.ultimate-guitar.com/a/a_day_to_remember/if_it_means_a_lot_to_you_tab.htm

Dude, there's a blatent difference. You're adding a lower note to the chord. It's a subtle difference, but with the correct feeling with the sturm you can hear the change. If you want the best example, the chords you are confused by are the perfect example!

Play every indivual note of C/G. Listen to each note.
Now play every note in Em/D and hear the difference. Repeat this process with a lil bit of speed and keep doing the change. It's a simple one finger movement, and with that the chord turns in a new direction you see?
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Dec 4 2010 05:07pm
Quote (GetOnYourKnees @ Dec 3 2010 07:33pm)
First of all, I'm a complete beginner at guitar so if I'm missing something stupidly obvious, please forgive me.

Im currently learning 'If it means a lot to you' by A Day To Remember and I've come across a problem with the chords used in it.

The chords used are C/G, G, Gsus and Em/D.

Okay so the problem is, whenever I play C/G immediately after Em/D or vice versa, they seem to both make exactly the same sound, making them indistinguishable. Now, I've asked 3 other people's opinions on this and they all agree, there is absolubtly no difference between the two.

So I was wondering, does my guitar need adjusting or something? ie intonation or something?

If anyone who could help, I'd be very grateful :)


The difference is definitely subtle, as bob has stated, but it definitely is there. I've found that beginners are not consistent with their strumming sometimes, or that they emphasize certain notes over others. You must make sure you are strumming every necessary string. If you are not playing consistently and are missing strings and, for example, are only hitting the top 4 strings most of the time, then yes, you would be playing the same chord for both of those. I've also found that beginners to playing instruments or those who listen to music casually (not religiously) cannot hear subtle differences as well. As you get better at music you will hear these differences better. In the song there are multiple instruments playing and the vocal melody also carries the song through the chord changes. It is easier to realize the subtle chord changes in the actual song because of this. When playing the guitar part only, you are getting a limited part of the whole song! (: Also there are ways that more experienced guitarists might take similar chords like that, and emphasize certain notes more, so the difference is apparent.
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Dec 5 2010 01:04am
The obvious answer lies within the their triads. The chord C/G is comprised of this triad C, E, G and Em is comprised of this triad, E, G, B. You're using 2/3rds of the same notes with the same voicings. E,G (a minor 3rd) and all of these notes are used in Cmaj7. Of course it sounds the same, why wouldn't it? Now... what are you going to do with those chords or voicings regardless?

Cmaj7 is C, E, G, B

This post was edited by Superchum on Dec 5 2010 01:04am
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Dec 9 2010 11:34pm
Quote (Superchum @ Dec 5 2010 02:04am)
The obvious answer lies within the their triads. The chord C/G is comprised of this triad C, E, G and Em is comprised of this triad, E, G, B. You're using 2/3rds of the same notes with the same voicings. E,G (a minor 3rd) and all of these notes are used in Cmaj7. Of course it sounds the same, why wouldn't it? Now... what are you going to do with those chords or voicings regardless?

Cmaj7 is C, E, G, B


It does not sound the same, but similar. Do not mislead him, the chords are definitely different chords, despite sounding very similar in those voicings.
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Dec 10 2010 12:14am
I agree with PSPZorZ

c/G___Em/D
|--3--|--3--|
|--3--|--3--|
|--0--|--0--|
|--2--|--2--|
|--3--|--2--|
|--X--|--0--|

Quote (GetOnYourKnees @ 4 Dec 2010 01:33)
Okay so the problem is, whenever I play C/G immediately after Em/D or vice versa, they seem to both make exactly the same sound, making them indistinguishable. Now, I've asked 3 other people's opinions on this and they all agree, there is absolubtly no difference between the two.

They can't sound the same (standard tuning) make sure you strum correctly, especially while doing down-strokes on those bolded notes keep a regular and well spread pressure when you brush the strings. I mean, do not play higher notes louder than lowers notes.
Now if your doing up-strokes for ornemental reason yes, they'll most likely sound the same cause you'll briefly catch few notes which are the same (XX2033)

This post was edited by tOrF on Dec 10 2010 12:35am
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