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May 14 2013 11:50am
I've added the fact that there is no such reason for NT authors to make Pontius Pilate innocent. So, I'm not repeating myself.
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May 14 2013 12:13pm
Quote (dajusta @ May 14 2013 09:44am)
There is absolutely no reason for the New Testament authors to embellish a view of Pontius Pilate to be innocent in the death of Jesus.  The Romans were hated by the disciples, they abused them, overtaxed them, and caused all kinds of historical travesties during the intertestamental period.  So it begs the question, if Scriptures say that Pontius Pilate "found no wrong" in Jesus, why would they do so?  Because of such national tension, it makes sense to think this information given on Pilate is indeed true.

Secondly, the information provided on Pilate's history and failures have been documented by Josephus, Philo, and Tacitus.  These are sources that have no such allegiance to Jews and are more favorable to Roman sources.  In these contexts, they show Pilate's inadequacy as a governor and lends truth to the fact that Pilate was in the hot seat with Caesar (Emperor or whatever) at the time.  To refute this claim has absolutely no precedence and a weak attempt to discredit the traditional and true view of Biblical history.

Conclusion - the Jewish Pharisees and teachers of the law played an instrumental role in the crucifixion and death of Jesus Christ.  The Roman soldiers put the nails in, but the Sanhedrin were the culprit.


You and poul need to share a room
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May 14 2013 12:15pm
Quote (dajusta @ May 14 2013 12:50pm)
I've added the fact that there is no such reason for NT authors to make Pontius Pilate innocent.  So, I'm not repeating myself.


Its fact because you say so?

You claimed to have read Joseph Stalin's mind through time a day ago so if your credibility is a bit strained it is through no fault of mine....
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May 14 2013 12:23pm
Quote (Skinned @ May 14 2013 11:15am)
Its fact because you say so?

You claimed to have read Joseph Stalin's mind through time a day ago so if your credibility is a bit strained it is through no fault of mine....


Are you uneducated with the analysis of history? Explain to me why NT authors would embellish Pilate.

Quote (Impose @ May 14 2013 11:13am)
You and poul need to share a room


Do you think Jewish Pharisees played no role in the crucifixion of Jesus?

This post was edited by dajusta on May 14 2013 12:24pm
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May 14 2013 12:27pm
Quote (dajusta @ May 14 2013 01:23pm)
Are you uneducated with the analysis of history?  Explain to me why NT authors would embellish Pilate.


Because they were most likely Roman. And all four gospels have Pilate playing different roles in the execution...the story itself is schizophrenic if taken at face value.

Do you know how the Bible was compiled and who made it? The politics and intra-sect warfare? It was like any other political action.

I'm not going to go into any details, because you'll just say "nuh uh" and I'll feel stupid for wasting my time on somebody incapable of the slightest bit of introspection.
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May 14 2013 12:32pm
Quote (Skinned @ May 14 2013 11:27am)
Because they were most likely Roman.  And all four gospels have Pilate playing different roles in the execution...the story itself is schizophrenic if taken at face value.

Do you know how the Bible was compiled and who made it?  The politics and intra-sect warfare?  It was like any other political action.

I'm not going to go into any details, because you'll just say "nuh uh" and I'll feel stupid for wasting my time on somebody incapable of the slightest bit of introspection.


The final form of the Bible was meant for different audiences, mainly Jew and Greek gentiles, hence the translation into Greek. If it was finished by Roman scholars then it would have been a Latin New Testament, but that didn't come much much later as the Vulgate. But since the 1st century and the 4th century, the ancient words are intact and you, sir, have to deal with the text as it was written by the eyewitnesses of the 1st century. Why would the author of John embellish Pilate? There is absolutely no reason to.

This post was edited by dajusta on May 14 2013 12:33pm
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May 14 2013 12:35pm
Quote (Impose @ May 14 2013 01:13pm)
You and poul need to share a room


he's actually quite civilized and doesn't use uppercase
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May 14 2013 12:38pm
Quote (dajusta @ May 14 2013 01:32pm)
The final form of the Bible was meant for different audiences, mainly Jew and Greek gentiles, hence the translation into Greek.  If it was finished by Roman scholars then it would have been a Latin New Testament, but that didn't come much much later as the Vulgate.  But since the 1st century and the 4th century, the ancient words are intact and you, sir, have to deal with the text as it was written by the eyewitnesses of the 1st century.  Why would the author of John embellish Pilate?  There is absolutely no reason to.


You don't know what I'm talking about at all.
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May 14 2013 12:39pm
why? the romans were jewish and killed jesus because their fellows and government told them to. they didn't want to - he was the VII of God, but they had to because they were afraid of VI (roman, government, people)
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May 14 2013 12:39pm
Quote (Skinned @ May 14 2013 11:38am)
You don't know what I'm talking about at all.


Well then you'd have to prove to me (and a thousand other scholars) that there is fabrication in the text that was added after 4th century. That is the only way you could make a case of Roman bias in the editing process.
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