"Faith is not action. Faith results in action."

Seems legit.

This post was edited by TradeBot on Mar 10 2012 10:46pm

Every morning I recite this prayer: "God, please make me suffer as much as Your son Jesus Christ so I may grow closer to You".

I'm not concerned with what happens to me after this life, I am more concerned with what I can do while I'm alive to be of maximum service to God and to others around me. If I start to be secure in the idea that I will go to Heaven, I lose my humility and stray further from God.

...using Acts 2 - 38 to make a case for mandatory modern day Baptism with water is a grievous misunderstanding of the target of that citation .

Please explain it to me then Widow? Pulling the "does it apply to us now" card is a dangerous slope to tread. Especially with doctrine.

...every serious Biblical scholar agrees that passage is directed at the early converts from Judaism in acknowledgement that Jesus was in fact the Messiah they had denied and crucified .



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This post was edited by WidowMaKer_MK on Mar 10 2012 11:26pm

Big assumptions on your part. I can find you many more scholars who attest that baptism applies to all of us, not just the early converts. If it was directed at the Jews.. why were the gentiles baptized as well?

...it's not an assumption on my part at all since I actually read the Biblical scholars instead of relying on my own personal interpretation . That passage is directed at early Jewish converts period , end of discussion on Acts 2 -38.




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This post was edited by WidowMaKer_MK on Mar 10 2012 11:33pm

And trust me when I say.. I have read more accounts from scholars than you have. It's an assumption on your part to say "every serious scholar..". Again, answer my question. If it was directed at the Jews, why were gentiles baptized?

But as usual you are just going to dodge. You always do when you are backed against the wall. END OF DISCUSSION, lol.

...your question is irrelevant . You clearly used the wrong citation to make a case for water baptism .

No I didn't. Nowhere in that verse does it say "Water baptism applies only to the Jews in the crowd!" For you (or any of your bogus scholars) to say it did, is pretty poor interpretation.

And how is my question irrelevant? You are saying water baptism only applied to the Jews based on Acts2:38. I am telling you that gentiles were also baptized. Was the message Peter gave to the Jews during Pentecost? Sure. It was a mostly Jewish crowd. But they took the words from Jesus (great commission) and carried over the message from Peter (day of pentecost) and baptized the gentiles as well. So again, if the message of water baptism was only intended for the Jews.. why were the gentiles baptized in the same way?