Quote (poulgaragr @ Sep 3 2012 08:32am)
"However they were not transmitted directly from India to Europe but rather came first to the Arabic/Islamic peoples and from them to Europe"
Besides, they are NUMBERS; this has NOTHING TO DO WITH THIS THREAD
Now stick to the TOPIC, mofo
Can you answer ANY of my challenges?
Either put up or shut up
Basically, in your previous response to Sylvannos you claimed that arabic numerals predates the hindu numerals, trying to correct him when he claimed the opposite. Instead of just admitting that you're wrong you increase text size and quote a source that itself says that arabic numerals are originating (even directly translated from) hindu numerals that were created by indian matematicians centuries before their arabic counterpart. Your quote even says so. "However they [indian numerals] were not transmitted directly from India to Europe but rather came first to the Arabic/Islamic peoples and from them to Europe." While the quote is true, all it does is prove our point. Why not just admit that you were wrong about this?
While it may seem like its completely off topic, it's actually speaks volumes of how you ignore any argument that falsifies your claim. Anyway, lets drop the numerals.
Here's a question I'd like you to answer. What is proof to you?