Quote (Skinned @ May 20 2022 02:17pm)
Nope. Coroner said otherwise. You're writing fan fiction cuck.
Coroner said that there was no evidence to support homicide whatsoever and ruled out all the potential evidence of asphyxiation. He was then threatened by colleagues, a mob, prosecutors and politicians who made it clear his career would end within days if he didn't determine it a homicide. He then switched his determination, without changing any of the writeup or evidence presented, and without a single piece of evidence to support his determination. When on the stand, he offered his only possible reason as "watching the video".
Per the autopsy, there were no markings of trauma that could have caused or contributed to death, no petechial hemmoraging, no injuries to neck or larynx, no scalp soft tissue injury, no brain injury, no chest wall injuries, no rib fractures, no occult trauma to neck shoulders back or blanks. He tested positive for Covid-19, 11 ng/mL (lethal) of Fentanyl, 5.6 ng/mL of Norfentanyl (ratio only explicable if he had previously metabolized fentanyl, then consumed another large dose prior to death), 19 ng/mL of methamphetamine, three types of THC residual, caffeine and cotinine, a full suite of polysubstance abuse that makes fentanyl particularly lethal. He had severe cariomegaly (540 g, 86.5% larger than average), and extremely severe immediate-death-causing 90% blocked right coronal artery and 75% blocked left coronal artery, 75% blockage of other arteries and 3:1 left ventricular hypertrophy. And a history of severe near-death hypertension, with a previous hospital visit recording a blood pressure of 216/120 while he was on the same fentanyl percocets as were in his system when he died.
So that's the evidence. What conclusions were we supposed to draw from that evidence?