Quote (EndlessSky @ Apr 8 2019 05:10pm)
Fair and unbiased faggots
also this one from politifact:
https://www.politifact.com/facebook-fact-checks/statements/2019/apr/08/viral-image/no-gun-control-regulation-nazi-germany-did-not-hel/Quote
"The images are authentic and not altered – both are from the time and places that the captions designate "
"Let's make something clear: The Nazis did deny guns specifically to Jews"
"The Nazis used the records to confiscate guns from their enemies"
"Regulations were introduced, though, to impose limits on Jews. On Nov. 11, 1938, the Regulations Against Jews' Possession of Weapons was issued. Under it, Jews living under the Third Reich were forbidden to own or possess any form of weapons, including truncheons, knives, firearms and ammunition."
Rating:
Falseremember, facts are no obstacle to political arguments when you're a "fact checker"
Disagree with an assertion based on evidence? just claim their evidence doesn't prove it, and then call it false without any counterevidence.
They actually argue that the warsaw uprising was pointless and that an armed jewish populace would be irrelevant. Because apparently the only bar is whether jews could have overthrown the nazis on their own unassisted, because anything short of that lofty goal was totally pointless. Nevermind that the more guns in the hands of jews, the higher the chances of hitler being assassinated, which might have averted the holocaust. But lets ignore that and say that it doesn't matter if jews were forbidden from owning guns and nazis used registrations to find them. All that politifact cares about is whether the
nazi population was subject to more or less gun control (?) and whether the jews could form an army and conquer berlin
Guests cannot view or vote in polls. Please register or login.