Quote (Landmine @ Oct 2 2023 03:20pm)
You would have to prove the knowingly. Which I doubt anyone could do. If appraiser A says value of property is such and appraiser B says value of property is such it wouldn’t be fraud to take the higher valuation.
It's incredibly easy to prove it was done knowingly.
When you built a 10,000 sqft apartment, and then report a 30,000 sqft (which is what happened for his own apartment) , it is obviously knowingly misrepresented. You built it after all.
When you own the land and have access to all survey documents and zoning documents that say you can't legally build certain things, and then tell a surveyer that you can build those things, you can easily conclude it was a knowing deception. You have access to all the documents after all.
When you admit in a court filing that the basis for your appraisal was "somebody from Saudi Arabia would probably pay it" as opposed to a real market appraisal, that's knowingly submitting false information. You made it up. You know that's not a real value based on market data.
See how easy this is?
This post was edited by NetflixAdaptationWidow on Oct 2 2023 02:25pm