Quote (NetflixAdaptationWidow @ 5 Apr 2022 06:49)
You actually over-estimated by a few decades ^_^
The real answer was 1942. The constitution was amended to remove slavery, but there were still a lot of slaves taken after reconstruction. When the justice department filed charges they would always get off because there was no federal law against slavery, so even though it was unconstitutional, there was no mechanism to enforce punishments on the slave owner or free the enslaved.
After reconstruction they made "vagrancy" or "selling cotton after dark" illegal, and would trump up whatever charges they wanted on blacks, often on the behest of a plantation owner or company. The company would then sign a contract with the black person saying if they worked off their debt the company / person would pay their bond. Except they would also charge the person for their bed, food, and everything else, so it would take years to pay off a small fine. Often they wouldn't even need the middle man. They would just contract the person out to pay the fine. Some people were charged a $10 fine but then hundreds more for "court costs", and would be contracted out for years at a time for a loitering violation.
This happened to literally millions of people in the south even after slavery and reconstruction. Not any kind of exploitative farm-hand arrangement. This continued to happen to millions of people until World War 2.
So when people say "slavery was so long ago", it wasn't even a single lifetime ago, and the exact same establishments who actively enforced this arrangement in the south then stood against desegregation, and the exact same police departments we have today were part of enforcing this and beat people to death during civil rights.
Really puts into perspective how insanely racist our laws in this country are, and remain. It's not like we totally rewrote the books after the 1940's.
Okay, so, essentially, regions in the South used in indentured/debt servitude as a replacement for official slavery and got away with it because there was no federal enforcement against it.
Do you know why it was 1942 when this practice ended?
My rationale for saying 1964 was that I assumed some diplomats from countries like Saudi Arabia or South Africa had personnel with slave status and American authorities recognized this status until the civl rights act.
This post was edited by Black XistenZ on Apr 5 2022 12:55am