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Apr 5 2022 12:46am
Quote (NetflixAdaptationWidow @ Apr 4 2022 10:49pm)
You actually over-estimated by a few decades ^_^

The real answer was 1942. The constitution was amended to remove slavery, but there were still a lot of slaves taken after reconstruction. When the justice department filed charges they would always get off because there was no federal law against slavery, so even though it was unconstitutional, there was no mechanism to enforce punishments on the slave owner or free the enslaved.

After reconstruction they made "vagrancy" or "selling cotton after dark" illegal, and would trump up whatever charges they wanted on blacks, often on the behest of a plantation owner or company. The company would then sign a contract with the black person saying if they worked off their debt the company / person would pay their bond. Except they would also charge the person for their bed, food, and everything else, so it would take years to pay off a small fine. Often they wouldn't even need the middle man. They would just contract the person out to pay the fine. Some people were charged a $10 fine but then hundreds more for "court costs", and would be contracted out for years at a time for a loitering violation.

This happened to literally millions of people in the south even after slavery and reconstruction. Not any kind of exploitative farm-hand arrangement. This continued to happen to millions of people until World War 2.

So when people say "slavery was so long ago", it wasn't even a single lifetime ago, and the exact same establishments who actively enforced this arrangement in the south then stood against desegregation, and the exact same police departments we have today were part of enforcing this and beat people to death during civil rights.

Really puts into perspective how insanely racist our laws in this country are, and remain. It's not like we totally rewrote the books after the 1940's.


ya thats not surprising south is democrat country, your bosses old rich n whyte
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Apr 5 2022 12:54am
Quote (NetflixAdaptationWidow @ 5 Apr 2022 06:49)
You actually over-estimated by a few decades ^_^

The real answer was 1942. The constitution was amended to remove slavery, but there were still a lot of slaves taken after reconstruction. When the justice department filed charges they would always get off because there was no federal law against slavery, so even though it was unconstitutional, there was no mechanism to enforce punishments on the slave owner or free the enslaved.

After reconstruction they made "vagrancy" or "selling cotton after dark" illegal, and would trump up whatever charges they wanted on blacks, often on the behest of a plantation owner or company. The company would then sign a contract with the black person saying if they worked off their debt the company / person would pay their bond. Except they would also charge the person for their bed, food, and everything else, so it would take years to pay off a small fine. Often they wouldn't even need the middle man. They would just contract the person out to pay the fine. Some people were charged a $10 fine but then hundreds more for "court costs", and would be contracted out for years at a time for a loitering violation.

This happened to literally millions of people in the south even after slavery and reconstruction. Not any kind of exploitative farm-hand arrangement. This continued to happen to millions of people until World War 2.

So when people say "slavery was so long ago", it wasn't even a single lifetime ago, and the exact same establishments who actively enforced this arrangement in the south then stood against desegregation, and the exact same police departments we have today were part of enforcing this and beat people to death during civil rights.

Really puts into perspective how insanely racist our laws in this country are, and remain. It's not like we totally rewrote the books after the 1940's.


Okay, so, essentially, regions in the South used in indentured/debt servitude as a replacement for official slavery and got away with it because there was no federal enforcement against it.
Do you know why it was 1942 when this practice ended?


My rationale for saying 1964 was that I assumed some diplomats from countries like Saudi Arabia or South Africa had personnel with slave status and American authorities recognized this status until the civl rights act.

This post was edited by Black XistenZ on Apr 5 2022 12:55am
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Apr 5 2022 01:04am
Quote (Black XistenZ @ Apr 5 2022 04:54pm)
Okay, so, essentially, regions in the South used in indentured/debt servitude as a replacement for official slavery and got away with it because there was no federal enforcement against it.
Do you know why it was 1942 when this practice ended?


My rationale for saying 1964 was that I assumed some diplomats from countries like Saudi Arabia or South Africa had personnel with slave status and American authorities recognized this status until the civl rights act.


I would guess the advent of the second world war meant they wanted the black community on side for that operation from the first southpark movie.
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Apr 5 2022 01:08am
Quote (Plaguefear @ 5 Apr 2022 08:04)
I would guess the advent of the second world war meant they wanted the black community on side for that operation from the first southpark movie.


I think was not so much about "want them on side" and more about "want them as additional labor in the factories".
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Apr 5 2022 01:17am
Quote (Black XistenZ @ Apr 5 2022 05:08pm)
I think was not so much about "want them on side" and more about "want them as additional labor in the factories".


True.
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Apr 5 2022 02:28am
Quote (NetflixAdaptationWidow @ Apr 4 2022 05:36pm)
Racistsayswhat?


Comebacks like this are what make you think your shit doesn't stink? I've never met someone this delusional
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Apr 5 2022 05:28am
Quote (Black XistenZ @ Apr 5 2022 01:54am)
Okay, so, essentially, regions in the South used in indentured/debt servitude as a replacement for official slavery and got away with it because there was no federal enforcement against it.
Do you know why it was 1942 when this practice ended?


My rationale for saying 1964 was that I assumed some diplomats from countries like Saudi Arabia or South Africa had personnel with slave status and American authorities recognized this status until the civl rights act.


When they were taken to task they would literally argue in court that it was slavery and not peonage.... and it worked because they were right. So not debt servitude. Literal slavery.

It ended in 1942 because world War 2 made the federal government consider the implications of still having slavery in the propaganda war so they finally did something.
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Apr 5 2022 05:42am
Quote (TiStuff @ Apr 4 2022 11:35pm)
do you know who the first permanent black slave in the colonies was owned by?

do you want to hear about it? ......ok, whos anthony johnson?

hahaha anthony johnson descendants out reeeeeing for reparations? wouldnt that be a load of chit

no fraud leftie here gona tell us you that is


notice no one touching this
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Apr 5 2022 09:25am
Quote (TiStuff @ Apr 5 2022 06:42am)
notice no one touching this


No one is touching a red herring in a discussion?

Perish the thought.
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Apr 5 2022 03:30pm
Quote (Surfpunk @ Apr 5 2022 08:25am)
No one is touching a red herring in a discussion?

Perish the thought.


its only a "red herring " for those who want to be dishonest about slavery
Black Man Was First Slave Owner? Anthony Johnson | Black History | www.BlackSeedsFilm.com


This post was edited by TiStuff on Apr 5 2022 03:31pm
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