d2jsp
Log InRegister
d2jsp Forums > Off-Topic > General Chat > Political & Religious Debate > Arguments For The Existence Of God
Prev1234512Next
Add Reply New Topic New Poll
Member
Posts: 63,058
Joined: Jul 15 2005
Gold: 152.00
Oct 12 2012 08:16pm
Quote (AEtheric @ Oct 12 2012 10:13pm)
I see that 3 is a premise, but I don't see how 4 logically follows from the rest. Premise 1 is also suspect, as it is arbitrary.


1 is merely a definition. I feel you should understand the language of logic before making false criticisms.


Quote (AEtheric @ Oct 12 2012 10:13pm)
I could just as well say that a god that is omnifryingpan is maximally excellent.


Yes, you could

This post was edited by Voyaging on Oct 12 2012 08:18pm
Member
Posts: 20,461
Joined: Jun 16 2008
Gold: 722.53
Warn: 10%
Oct 12 2012 08:18pm
Quote (Voyaging @ Oct 12 2012 08:16pm)
1 is not a premise. I feel you should understand the language of logic before making false criticisms.




Yes, you could


I don't have to fully know the language of logic to criticize it. We have to accept 1 without justification in order to move on to the next statements. If 1 is not a premise, then what is it?

And you never answered how 4 logically follows from the rest, even though you said I made a 'false criticism'.

This post was edited by AEtheric on Oct 12 2012 08:24pm
Member
Posts: 38,069
Joined: Mar 16 2007
Gold: 312.01
Trader: Trusted
Oct 12 2012 08:20pm
Quote (AEtheric @ Oct 12 2012 10:18pm)
I don't have to fully know the language of logic to criticize it. We have to accept 1 in order to move on to the next statements. If 1 is not a premise, then what is it?

And you never answered how 4 logically follows from the rest.


I'll step in for Voyaging here and present his same Kalaam argument in slightly different words:

Premise: Possibly there is a maximally great being. (A being that possesses maximal excellence [omniscience, omnipotence, moral perfection] in every possible world.)
Conclusion: Necessarily there is a maximally great being.
Member
Posts: 78,723
Joined: Nov 30 2008
Gold: 493.00
Oct 12 2012 08:21pm
Quote (Jp2050 @ Oct 13 2012 02:12am)
1. In an actual infinity, a part is equal to the whole.
2. In reality, a part cannot be equal to a whole.
3. An actual infinity cannot exist. (in reality)


i think you're missing the point that "infinity" while treated as a number is not in fact a number

singularities (black holes) exist afaik
Member
Posts: 38,069
Joined: Mar 16 2007
Gold: 312.01
Trader: Trusted
Oct 12 2012 08:21pm
Quote (duffman316 @ Oct 12 2012 10:21pm)
i think you're missing the point that "infinity" while treated as a number is not in fact a number

singularities (black holes) exist afaik


irrelevant tangent on both counts
Member
Posts: 20,461
Joined: Jun 16 2008
Gold: 722.53
Warn: 10%
Oct 12 2012 08:22pm
Quote (Jp2050 @ Oct 12 2012 08:20pm)
I'll step in for Voyaging here and present his same Kalaam argument in slightly different words:

Premise: Possibly there is a maximally great being. (A being that possesses maximal excellence [omniscience, omnipotence, moral perfection] in every possible world.)
Conclusion: Necessarily there is a maximally great being.


The conclusion does not follow. How is it that since something is possible, that means that it must exist? Unicorns are possible, but does that mean that they exist?
Member
Posts: 63,058
Joined: Jul 15 2005
Gold: 152.00
Oct 12 2012 08:24pm
Nobody here clearly understands modal logic, but in plain English

IF possibly p THEN necessarily possibly p
Member
Posts: 38,069
Joined: Mar 16 2007
Gold: 312.01
Trader: Trusted
Oct 12 2012 08:24pm
Quote (AEtheric @ Oct 12 2012 10:22pm)
The conclusion does not follow. How is it that since something is possible, that means that it must exist? Unicorns are possible, but does that mean that they exist?


If a maximally great being is possible, it is necessary, by definition.

The only objection you can raise here is that a maximally great being is not possible.
Member
Posts: 20,461
Joined: Jun 16 2008
Gold: 722.53
Warn: 10%
Oct 12 2012 08:25pm
Quote (Jp2050 @ Oct 12 2012 08:24pm)
If a maximally great being is possible, it is necessary, by definition.

The only objection you can raise here is that a maximally great being is not possible.


No. That doesn't make sense. I already showed how a being that is possible is not necessary.
Member
Posts: 38,069
Joined: Mar 16 2007
Gold: 312.01
Trader: Trusted
Oct 12 2012 08:26pm
Quote (Voyaging @ Oct 12 2012 10:07pm)
It must be because maximal greatness is explicitly defined in the argument.

The original ontological argument (Anselm) can be turned into symbolic syntax and proven valid by a computer. And this has been done. The formal argument is as follows.
1.  ¬E!ιxφ1  Assumption for reductio
2.  ∃y(Gyιxφ1 & Cy)  from (1), by Premise 2 and MP
3.  Ghιxφ1 & Ch  from (2), by EE, ‘h’ arbitrary
4.  Ghιxφ1  from (3), by &E
5.  ∃y(y = ιxφ1)  from (4), by Description Theorem 3
6.  Cιxφ1 & ¬∃y(Gyιxφ1 & Cy)  from (5), by Description Theorem 2
7.  ¬∃y(Gyιxφ1 & Cy)  from (6), by &E
8.  E!ιxφ1  Reductio (1); (2) vs. (7)
9.  E!g  from (8), by definition ‘g’


Premises:

Premise 1: Cx & ¬∃y(Gyx & Cy)
In this premise, the expression "Cx" asserts that x is conceivable, and so Premise 1 asserts that there is something which is conceivable and such that there is nothing y which is greater than x and conceivable.



Premise 2: ¬E!ιxφ1 → ∃y(Gyιxφ1 & Cy)
This asserts that if the conceivable thing such that nothing greater is conceivable doesn't exist, then there is something greater than it which is conceivable.

This is necessarily a valid argument, assuming premises 1 and 2 are true. If you know symbolic logic, you can learn the additional defined symbols they used here: http://mally.stanford.edu/cm/ontological-argument/ and see if you accept the premises. If the premises are both true, the validity of the argument is proven and God exists. (God is df  ιxφ1 )

The following was an interesting result described in Oppenheimer and Zalta 1991, namely, that if greater than is connected, then if there is something than which none greater can be conceived, then there is a unique thing than which none greater can be conceived. This is capture by Lemma 2:

    Lemma 2: ∃xφ1 → ∃!xφ1

The importance of this lemma cannot be overstated, for it validates the introduction of the definite description into Anselm's language. It justifies his use of the expression "the (conceivable) x such that nothing greater is conceivable".

Note the subscripts didn't come out correctly so go to the link above to see the argument properly.


I do not have experience with this argument and cannot comment on it at this time, but I look forward to examining it in the future.
Go Back To Political & Religious Debate Topic List
Prev1234512Next
Add Reply New Topic New Poll