I am genuinely curious, how do the pro-2nd amendment people respond to the fact that foreign countries have barely any guns compared to the US and have significantly less murder-related deaths as well as less gun-related deaths?
From a data-driven analytical standpoint, the 2nd amendment is kind of.. indefensible :ph34r:
Its a racial crime issue. Murders aren't any higher for white, asian, islander, arab, etc Americans than for the same ethnic groups in other countries. Black, hispanic, african, indigenous, etc Americans have vastly higher murder rates, similar to the rates of their ethnic groups in other countries.
https://pmc.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/articles/PMC10849238/#:~:text=The%20social%20burden%20of%20lethal,at%20which%20a%20person%20dies.
The non hispanic white murder rate in the US is estimated to be about 3.3 offenders per 100,000. Contrast black americans at 33.6, and 6.9 for hispanics and 12.9 indigenous but only 1.7 asian / islander.
The orders of magitude are comparable to same ethnic groups in other countries. The white european countries averaged 2 or less per 100k at least before mass migration. Mexico is 19.3 and other south american countries range 6 to 26 or so, other than El Salvador being a sanctuary thanks to its magical crime crackdown (1.9 per 100k). And subsaharan africa is the same picture, hell south africa has 40+ per 100k. And of course in China its 0.44, japan is 0.3, korea is 0.5
Does this explain the phenomenon better or worse than the access to firearms? I don't see switzerland having a crime epidemic