Does Statement #2 contradict what was said in statement #1
Info: Statement #2 was said about statement #1
Quote (thesnipa @ 14 Dec 2018 16:17)
I could run you over with a car on complete accident, but if we just had an argument its going to look more like it was intentional.
[referring to Bull Actor ] because the man could have had influence doesn't change that he clearly tried to use it after an altercation. [clearly trying to use it meaning he did it intentionally]
Following that up with
Quote (thesnipa @ 14 Dec 2018 16:41)
nothing about that sentence implies that since it looks intentional it is intentional.
what do you think?
This post was edited by Crunktd on Dec 14 2018 02:50pm