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Nov 19 2017 06:31pm



can someone prove this to me? idk how it is equal to 1
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Nov 19 2017 06:55pm
think of it like this. as you approach infinity, the a^2 value becomes increasingly small relative to the infinity in the numerator and denominator. its like taking 1 trillion divided by 1 trillion minus 1

This post was edited by Zpot on Nov 19 2017 07:12pm
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Nov 19 2017 07:19pm
Good explanation above.

Usually, it's treated this way :

x² / ( x² - a²) = 1 / ( 1 - a²/x²)

providing x is non zero.

Now if x approaches infinity, a²/x² tends to zero.

The fraction tends to 1 / ( 1 - 0) = 1.
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Nov 19 2017 08:16pm
Also look up L’Hopitals Rule.
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Nov 19 2017 09:42pm
Quote (feanur @ Nov 19 2017 08:19pm)
Good explanation above.

Usually, it's treated this way :

x² / ( x² - a²) = 1 / ( 1 - a²/x²)

providing x is non zero.

Now if x approaches infinity, a²/x² tends to zero.

The fraction tends to 1 / ( 1 - 0) = 1.


thanks!
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Nov 20 2017 01:41pm
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