can anyone give me a correct explanation why this statement is incorrect?

"The flowers were fallen on the floor"

When using the word fallen, it is usually a singularity - He, I, Jim, Bob, Noob, that it is used with correctly, 3rd view classifications such as "They" are rarely exempt. Also continuous infinitive - fallen implies something that has already happened thus wouldn't need were in front. 3rd reason fallen is usually used to categorize something -> you are already using categorization "flowers", so unless "flowers" are used as some type of a code in secret message its grammatically incorrect.

I don't know proper English grammar classifications/terms, but basically should be the same as its Latin that influenced English the most.

This post was edited by Tyxo on Nov 6 2017 12:35am

were implies a past state of being, not subjunctive for an action and would not be appropriate in this sentence. Context would play a big role in deciding how you want to talk about the flowers in the past tense.


Either:
The flowers have fallen to the floor.
The flowers had fallen to the floor.
The flowers fell to the floor.


"have fallen" implies some immediacy to the state of having fallen recently. This would likely only be used in an immediate conversation with someone on the scene of the action.
"had fallen" implies the action is well in the past and could be used generally descriptively in past events. This seems unnecessary and redundant given the last option though.
"fell" treats the flowers directly as an action verb in past tense. Whereas the other two treat flowers with an almost objective description.

Were would only be used in conjunction with present participle (verbs ending with -ing) to describe action which has ended.

The flowers were falling to the floor.

They were writing a script.

This post was edited by timmayX on Nov 6 2017 02:08am