Quote (Santara @ May 22 2012 01:32pm)
I specifically asked you questions about using the force of law to mandate Christian morality on to non-Christians. Can you please explain how this doesn't constitute a violation of the first amendment as understood by most modern people?
It would mainly occur on a local level (such as certain counties in Utah prohibiting the sale of alcohol due to Mormonism). I think this is acceptable if people in an area feel that it adversely affects their life.
Quote (AEtheric @ May 22 2012 01:30pm)
The notion that it's sinful isn't the reason why it's banned.
You don't know that. Some people may have voted to get that law in place because they believe it's sinful. Others may have done it for secular reasons. The point is, morality WAS legislated. Their justification doesn't really matter in my opinion.